"I Permit Not a Woman . . ." To Remain Shackled
Table of Contents
Acknowledgements and Dedication
Introduction
1. "Mind Control - Male and Female"
2. "Self-Examination"
3. "I Suffer Not a Woman
.To Remain Shackled?"
4. "Teachings and Practices of the Churches of Christ"
5. "Public Versus Private Meetings"
6. "Our Practices in Christian Universities, Colleges, Journalism and Drama"
7. "Woman in the Apostolic Church"
8. "Equal But Unequal?"
9. "Praying and Prophesying"
10. "Spiritual Gifts"
11. "As Also Saith the Law"
12. "Other Women, Other Scriptures"
13. "Silent - Silence - Other Thoughts"
14. "Other Considerations - What?"
15. "Prayer, Quietness, Exercising Dominion"
16. "Applying Other Scriptures"
17. "From Then Until Now - Women in The Restoration Movement"
18. "Important Questions"
19. "Clear Conclusions"
20. "Epilogue"
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Chapter 14
Other Considerations - "What?"
There is one additional and extremely important argument that
should be honestly considered, before we leave the fourteenth
chapter of I Corinthians. It regards the Greek term, "e,"
translated "what?" in the introductory word of verse
36. The argument has strength and must be considered by all serious
students of this subject. Translated "what," it is
an exclamation negating or contrary to the verses immediately
preceding it. Thayer's position was that the "e" with
the grave accent may appear "before a sentence contrary to
the one preceding (it)...." He listed I Corinthians 14:36
as an illustration. The conclusion would be this: Paul has quoted
what some Corinthian husbands or men were teaching regarding the
place of wives or women in the Corinthian church. It may have
been what was socially acceptable among the Gentiles. It may
have also come out of Rabbinical law. "Let your wives (women)
keep silence in the churches, for it is not permitted for them
to speak; but let them be in subjection as also saith the law.
If they would learn anything, let them ask their husbands at
home" was not an Old Testament law. And Paul retorts in
verse 36, "What? Was it from you, husbands, men, or you
Corinthians, who say women should be silent, that the word of
God went forth? Or came it to you, Corinthian husbands (or men)?"
According to Thayer, Paul would be actually teaching the opposite
of what we have traditionally believed and taught that he said.
This proof text, which has been used to keep women in silence
and subjection, loses its force completely. That is most ironic.
Incidentally, there is no grammatical evidence that "as
in all the churches of the saints," in verse 33, is connected
with verse 34. It probably is saying that "God is not a
God of confusion, but of peace" in only Corinth, but "in
all the churches of the saints." But this must be better
understood.
We have traditionally interpreted churches in verses 33 and 34
as congregations of the church universal. "Eklesia"
is the Greek term for church and more properly translated "assembly."
These scriptures would and should read, "As in all the assemblies
of the saints" and "Keep silence in the assemblies."
We certainly don't believe women should keep silence in the churches
in the universal sense, as members twenty-fours hours a day.
Using the logical translation of "Eklesia," we would
say Paul instructs women to be "silent" and "not
to speak" in the assemblies of the saints. But we get into
trouble again. Just which assemblies are women forbidden to speak
in? Which must she remain silent in? A Bible class is an assembly
of saints. A home Bible study is an assembly of saints, prayer
meetings, lectureships, singings, and gospel meetings are all
assemblies of saints.
Not only are we forced to form a creed on which assemblies she
may speak in, but we must designate which speech is acceptable
to us and to God in each assembly. That is a big order! These
problems are cleared up further when we view the significance
of the arguments in this chapter.
Was Paul countering the heresy of these Corinthians, among whom
were some who believed that women, or wives, should be silent
in the worship service, because of Rabbinic law or custom. Certainly,
there is no Old Testament law that suggests that because a wife
was subject to her husband she should also be silent in assemblies.
He is asking, "Do you mean to think that it is from you,
husbands only, or men only, that the word of God went forth, or
that no wife or woman in the church received the word or can declare
it?" Paul is using the interrogatory to make a positive
statement about husbands (or men) not being the only ones who
received the word of God or from whom it had to come. No one
doubts that Paul's questions in this text are rhetorical. The
answer is obvious: "The word of God did not come from you
husbands (or men) only." The Corinthians certainly understood
that this was the truth coming out of the two questions.
So, Thayer's position clearly makes this position as credible
as any other, in view of what women actually did in the Old and
New Testaments. Why? Because Paul has no doubt that the word
of God did not originate with the Corinthians, but quite the contrary.
Moreover, Paul knew women had the spiritual gifts because he
had already instructed them on how to dress their heads when prophesying
or praying in worship.
The "what!" was a rebuke of those Corinthians who believed
that wives (women) should keep silence not speak in the church.
There is certainly sound argument in the Greek for that interpretation.
This argument sheds light from a different perspective and should
keep any student of God's word from being dogmatic about trying
to maintain the traditional absolutes and non-absolutes that we
traditionally attempt to force into this passage. These conclusions
certainly make verses 34-35 conform to the rest of Paul's teaching
in the context of chapters 11-14, which clearly show that all
members, including women, were publicly exercising speaking gifts.
Paul then states, in verse 39, "Wherefore, my brethren, desire
earnestly to prophesy, and forbid not to speak in tongues."
This instruction was given to the brotherhood at Corinth. It
tells men and women to earnestly desire to prophesy and does not
forbid them, men or women, from speaking in tongues. Why would
Paul instruct the men and women in the Corinthian church to seek
the gifts of prophecy and tongues if women were going to be forbidden
to exercise them in the assemblies of the church? Remember, this
whole chapter is about assemblies. The whole church is being
instructed.
It is about the way in which gifts were to be exercised that Paul
has been giving instruction in this entire context, not that men
and women could not exercise them peacefully and profitably in
the assembly.
We know that when the church assembled, individuals, including
men and women, had Psalms, revelations, tongues, or interpretations,
etc. The evidence is overwhelming! No serious student of this
subject can fail to recognize the clear implications of Thayer's
statement on the study of this subject.
Traditionally, we have read I Corinthians 14:34-35 and concluded
that this was an absolute rule, but absolute only where we decide
to enforce it. And then, we justified violating this absolute
with our exceptions as we have seen fit. Better exegesis would
compel us to fit verses 34 and 35 into the entire context of chapters
11 and 14, instead of starting with verses 34 and 35, and forcing
the context and the rest of the Bible to agree with our interpretation
of those two particular verses. The evidence is too overwhelming
to argue that both men and women did not both have gifts and did
not exercise those gifts in the assemblies of the church.
With this acknowledgement, it is clear that the most these two
verses and those in chapter 11 say is only that a wife should
not appear to challenge her husband's authority over her by removing
a sign of authority in such a way as to cause confusion by questioning
him in the assembly. And, perhaps Paul was only saying, "You
are not to chatter or babble in the assembly." This would
meet the requirement of the Greek for "speak." Neither
insubordination to husbands or babbling was allowed.
Using Thayer's position and that of other lexicographers, Paul
is telling the Corinthians they are not the only source of God's
word. So, how dare they try to impose silence on women or wives
in the churches of the saints, which was a false tradition being
created in Corinth? In the interest of honesty and consistency,
we all know women ask all kinds of questions in the various assemblies
of the church. Who is wise enough to speak for God on which questions
and in what assemblies women can ask questions, even if the above
arguments are wrong? Who will dare draw the lines for God and
impose their "special" insight on all others, even causing
a hellish division in the church, or in maintaining false doctrines
based upon our tradition instead of the teachings of the Bible?
When there are clearly two or more logical conclusions to be
reached on a particular scripture, no one person or group has
the authority to impose a single interpretation on all others.
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